試験の準備方法-認定する8011試験時間試験-信頼的な8011練習問題
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8011練習問題 & 8011日本語版試験解答
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PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam 認定 8011 試験問題 (Q205-Q210):
質問 # 205
Which of the following statements are correct:
I. A training set is a set of data used to create a model, while a control set is a set of data is used to prove that the model actually works II. Cleansing, aggregating or ensuring data integrity is a task for the IT department, and is not a risk manager's responsibility III. Lack of information on the quality of underlying securities and assets was a major cause of the collapse in the CDO markets during the credit crisis that started in 2007 IV. The problem of lack of historical data can be addressed reasonably satisfactorily by using analytical approaches
正解:C
解説:
Statement I is correct. Data is often divided into two sets - a 'training set' that is used to create and fine-tune the model while the 'control set' is used to prove that the model works on sample data. Back testing is then perfomed using actual data that becomes available over time, or may already be available as historical data.
Statement II is incorrect. A risk manager often spends a great deal of time in managing data, and ensuring that the data being used is accurate enough for the purpose it is being used for. A risk manager can expect to spend a good part of his or her team's time in cleansing data. While he or she can try to get the IT processes and systems to produce correct data in the first place so it requires minimal subsequent cleansing or validation, this task is likely to remain a key part of a risk manager's role for quite some time in the future given the challenges nearly all organizations face in managing risk data.
Statement III is correct. There was not enough granular data available on the underlying components of some of the derivative debt securities whose markets dried up during the crisis that began in 2007. This was because investors became increasingly unsure of what the value of these securities, such as CDOs was, leading to market seizure and firesale prices.
Statement IV is not correct. There is no easy solution to the lack of enough historical data, which is used to create as well as test models, and construct stress scenarios. Analytical approaches are not a good enough substitute for real market data. During the recent crisis, many instruments had rather short histories and there was not enough data available, and risk managers and portfolio managers relied upon analytical approaches to value and price them. Many of the assumptions that underpinned these approaches were untested in the real world and turned out to be incorrect.
Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer and the rest are incorrect.
質問 # 206
If two bonds with identical credit ratings, coupon and maturity but from different issuers trade at different spreads to treasury rates, which of the following is a possible explanation:
I. The bonds differ in liquidity
II. Events have happened that have changed investor perceptions but these are not yet reflected in the ratings III. The bonds carry different market risk IV. The bonds differ in their convexity
正解:C
解説:
When two bonds that appear identical in every respect trade at different prices, the difference is often due to differences in liquidity between the two bonds (the less liquid bond will be cheaper and yield higher), and also due to the fact that ratings from the major rating agencies do not generally react to day to day changes in the market. The market's perception of the differences in the two credits will cause a divergence in the prices.
This has been an extremely visible phenomenon during the credit crisis of 2007-2009, where fixed income security prices have changed sharply for many securities without any changes in external credit ratings.
Bonds carrying 'different market risk' is meaningless, and so is the difference in convexity (because the calculated convexity would be identical for similar bonds).
Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
質問 # 207
Which of the following is not an event of default covered in the ISDA Master Agreement?
I). failure to pay or deliver
II). credit support default
III). merger without assumption
IV). Bankruptcy
正解:A
解説:
Note that events of default under the ISDA MA are caused by one of the parties that is considered 'at fault'. In contrast, "termination events" are events for which no one is at fault, for example changes in legislation, illegality etc that still justify termination of the transactions under the contract.
The ISDA MA describes the following 8 types of events of default:
1. failure of pay or deliver
2. breach of agreement
credit support default
4. misrepresentation
5. default under specified transaction
6. cross default
7. bankruptcy
8. merger without assumption
All of the options presented in the question are events of default.
質問 # 208
Which of the following statements is true in relation to a normal mixture distribution:
I. The mixture will always have a kurtosis greater than a normal distribution with the same mean and variance II. A normal mixture density function is derived by summing two or more normal distributions III. VaR estimates for normal mixtures can be calculated using a closed form analytic formula
正解:D
解説:
Normal mixtures have higher peaks, and therefore higher kurtosis than a normal distribution with an equivalent mean and variance. Therefore statement I is correct.
The term 'normal mixture' literally means that - the distribution is derived by summing two or more normal distributions. Statement II is correct. One interesting thing to note about normal mixtures is that their mean and variances are just the weighted averages of the means and variances of their underlying component normal distributions. But their kurtosis is higher than that of either of the components. They are more peaked, and have fatter tails, a property that makes them useful in finance.
Unfortunately there is no analytical formula for calculating VaR based on normal mixtures. However, we can back solve for VaR (using Excel's Solver, for example), given we know the density functions for the underlying normal distributions. Statement III is not correct.
質問 # 209
Under the standardized approach to calculating operational risk capital, how many business lines are a bank's activities divided into per Basel II?
正解:D
解説:
In the Standardized Approach, banks' activities are divided into eight business lines: corporate finance, trading & sales, retail banking, commercial banking, payment & settlement, agency services, asset management, and retail brokerage. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
質問 # 210
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PRMIA持ってきた製品があなたにふさわしくないと感じることはよくありますか? PRMIAラーニングガイドを使用することに決めた場合、問題に遭遇することは決してないことをお伝えしたいと思います。 私たちの教材は、あなたが期待できない8011高品質を持っています。 学習教材のガイダンスで経験を積むと、以前よりも8011時間を費やさず、明らかにCredit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam進歩を感じることができます。また、PRMIAテストクイズは進歩に役立つことがわかります。
8011練習問題: https://www.shikenpass.com/8011-shiken.html
一方、8011試験の質問を使用すると、Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam試験の焦点が失われることを心配する必要はありません、それで、我々ShikenPASS 8011練習問題の高質で完備な8011練習問題 - Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam問題集を勧めて、あなたの資料を選んでかかる時間のロースを減少し、もっと多くの時間を利用して8011練習問題 - Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam問題集を勉強します、PRMIA 8011試験時間 また、私たちはお客様にタイムりな助けを提供できます、さらに重要なことは、最新の8011試験トレントのデモを無料で入手できることです、PRMIA 8011試験時間 このインターネット時代において、社会の発展とともに、コストがより低くて内容が完全な情報が不可欠です。
直孝ばかりではない、私は少しうつむきながら口を開く、一方、8011試験の質問を使用すると、Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam試験の焦点が失われることを心配する必要はありません、それで、我々ShikenPASSの高質で完備なCredit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam問題集8011を勧めて、あなたの資料を選んでかかる時間のロースを減少し、もっと多くの時間を利用してCredit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam問題集を勉強します。
権威のある8011試験時間一回合格-素敵な8011練習問題
また、私たちはお客様にタイムりな助けを提供できます、さらに重要なことは、最新の8011試験トレントのデモを無料で入手できることです、このインターネット時代において、社会の発展とともに、コストがより低くて内容が完全な情報が不可欠です。
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